PCCET Exam Questions Get Updated [2023] with Correct Answers
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Palo Alto Networks PCCET (Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician) Exam is designed to test the foundational knowledge of individuals seeking to begin a career in cybersecurity. PCCET exam covers topics such as network security, cloud security, endpoint protection, and security operations. The PCCET certification demonstrates that an individual has a solid understanding of the fundamentals of cybersecurity, and is able to identify security risks and implement security measures to protect against them.
NEW QUESTION # 69
What is a key advantage and key risk in using a public cloud environment?
- A. Multi-tenancy
- B. Dedicated Networks
- C. Multiplexing
- D. Dedicated Hosts
Answer: A
Explanation:
Multitenancy is a key characteristic of the public cloud, and an important risk. Although public cloud providers strive to ensure isolation between their various customers, the infrastructure and resources in the public cloud are shared. Inherent risks in a shared environment include misconfigurations, inadequate or ineffective processes and controls, and the "noisy neighbor" problem (excessive network traffic, disk I/O, or processor use can negatively impact other customers sharing the same resource). In hybrid and multicloud environments that connect numerous public and/or private clouds, the delineation becomes blurred, complexity increases, and security risks become more challenging to address.
NEW QUESTION # 70
Which network firewall operates up to Layer 4 (Transport layer) of the OSI model and maintains information about the communication sessions which have been established between hosts on trusted and untrusted networks?
- A. Static packet-filter
- B. Group policy
- C. Stateful
- D. Stateless
Answer: C
Explanation:
Stateful packet inspection firewalls Second-generation stateful packet inspection (also known as dynamic packet filtering) firewalls have the following characteristics:
* They operate up to Layer 4 (Transport layer) of the OSI model and maintain state information about the communication sessions that have been established between hosts on the trusted and untrusted networks.
* They inspect individual packet headers to determine source and destination IP address, protocol (TCP, UDP, and ICMP), and port number (during session establishment only) to determine whether the session should be allowed, blocked, or dropped based on configured firewall rules.
* After a permitted connection is established between two hosts, the firewall creates and deletes firewall rules for individual connections as needed, thus effectively creating a tunnel that allows traffic to flow between the two hosts without further inspection of individual packets during the session.
* This type of firewall is very fast, but it is port-based and it is highly dependent on the trustworthiness of the two hosts because individual packets aren't inspected after the connection is established.
NEW QUESTION # 71
Which network device breaks networks into separate broadcast domains?
- A. Hub
- B. Router
- C. Wireless access point
- D. Layer 2 switch
Answer: B
Explanation:
A layer 2 switch will break up collision domains but not broadcast domains. To break up broadcast domains you need a Layer 3 switch with vlan capabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 72
In which type of Wi-Fi attack does the attacker intercept and redirect the victim's web traffic to serve content from a web server it controls?
- A. Meddler-in-the-middle
- B. Emotet
- C. Evil Twin
- D. Jasager
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 73
Which subnet does the host 192.168.19.36/27 belong?
- A. 192.168.19.16
- B. 192.168.19.0
- C. 192.168.19.32
- D. 192.168.19.64
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 74
What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within trust levels?
- A. control and protect inter-host traffic by exporting all your traffic logs to a sysvol log server using the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
- B. control and protect inter-host traffic using physical network security appliances
- C. control and protect inter-host traffic by using IPv4 addressing
- D. control and protect inter-host traffic using routers configured to use the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) dynamic routing protocol
Answer: B
Explanation:
page 211 "Consolidating servers within trust levels: Organizations often consolidate servers within the same trust level into a single virtual computing environment: ... ... ... This virtual systems capability enables a single physical device to be used to simultaneously meet the unique requirements of multiple VMs or groups of VMs. Control and protection of inter-host traffic with physical network security appliances that are properly positioned and configured is the primary security focus."
NEW QUESTION # 75
What is the key to "taking down" a botnet?
- A. use LDAP as a directory service
- B. prevent bots from communicating with the C2
- C. install openvas software on endpoints
- D. block Docker engine software on endpoints
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 76
Routing Information Protocol (RIP), uses what metric to determine how network traffic should flow?
- A. Split Horizon
- B. Shortest Path
- C. Path Vector
- D. Hop Count
Answer: D
Explanation:
Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an example of a distance-vector routing protocol that uses hop count as its routing metric. To prevent routing loops, in which packets effectively get stuck bouncing between various router nodes, RIP implements a hop limit of 15, which limits the size of networks that RIP can support. After a data packet crosses 15 router nodes (hops) between a source and a destination, the destination is considered unreachable.
NEW QUESTION # 77
What does SIEM stand for?
- A. Security Infosec and Event Management
- B. Standard Installation and Event Media
- C. Security Information and Event Management
- D. Secure Infrastructure and Event Monitoring
Answer: C
Explanation:
Originally designed as a tool to assist organizations with compliance and industry-specific regulations, security information and event management (SIEM) is a technology that has been around for almost two decades
NEW QUESTION # 78
Which Palo Alto Networks tools enable a proactive, prevention-based approach to network automation that accelerates security analysis?
- A. Cortex XDR
- B. MineMeld
- C. WildFire
- D. AutoFocus
Answer: D
Explanation:
"Palo Alto Networks AutoFocus enables a proactive, prevention-based approach to network security that puts automation to work for security professionals. Threat intelligence from the service is made directly accessible in the Palo Alto Networks platform, including PAN-OS software and Panorama. AutoFocus speeds the security team's existing workflows, which allows for in-depth investigation into suspicious activity, without additional specialized resources."
NEW QUESTION # 79
What is the purpose of SIEM?
- A. Automating the security team's incident response
- B. Real-time monitoring and analysis of security events
- C. Filtering webpages employees are allowed to access
- D. Securing cloud-based applications
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 80
Which of the following is an AWS serverless service?
- A. Beta
- B. Lambda
- C. Delta
- D. Kappa
Answer: B
Explanation:
Examples of serverless environments include Amazon Lambda and Azure Functions. Many PaaS offerings, such as Pivotal Cloud Foundry, also are effectively serverless even if they have not historically been marketed as such. Although serverless may appear to lack the container-specific, cloud native attribute, containers are extensively used in the underlying implementations, even if those implementations are not exposed to end users directly.
NEW QUESTION # 81
What are three benefits of the cloud native security platform? (Choose three.)
- A. Exclusivity
- B. Flexibility
- C. Digital transformation
- D. Agility
- E. Increased throughput
Answer: B,C,E
NEW QUESTION # 82
Which statement is true about advanced persistent threats?
- A. They typically attack only once.
- B. They use script kiddies to carry out their attacks.
- C. They have the skills and resources to launch additional attacks.
- D. They lack the financial resources to fund their activities.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 83
What is a key advantage and key risk in using a public cloud environment?
- A. Multi-tenancy
- B. Dedicated Networks
- C. Multiplexing
- D. Dedicated Hosts
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 84
Match the IoT connectivity description with the technology.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
Short-range wireless:
Adaptive Network Technology+ (ANT+): ANT+ is a proprietary multicast wireless sensor network technology primarily used in personal wearables, such as sports and fitness sensors.
Bluetooth/Bluetooth Low-Energy (BLE): Bluetooth is a low-power, short-range communications technology primarily designed for point-to-point communications between wireless devices in a hub-and-spoke topology. BLE (also known as Bluetooth Smart or Bluetooth 4.0+) devices consume significantly less power than Bluetooth devices and can access the internet directly through 6LoWPAN connectivity.
Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) over Low-Power Wireless Personal Area Networks (6LoWPAN): 6LoWPAN allows IPv6 traffic to be carried over low-power wireless mesh networks. 6LoWPAN is designed for nodes and applications that require wireless internet connectivity at relatively low data rates in small form factors, such as smart light bulbs and smart meters.
Wi-Fi/802.11: The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) defines the 802 LAN protocol standards. 802.11 is the set of standards used for Wi-Fi networks typically operating in the 2.4GHz and 5GHz frequency bands. The most common implementations today include:
802.11n (labeled Wi-Fi 4 by the Wi-Fi Alliance), which operates on both 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands at ranges from 54Mbps to 600Mbps
802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5), which operates on the 5GHz band at ranges from 433Mbps to 3.46 Gbps
802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6), which operates on the 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands (and all bands between 1 and 6GHz, when they become available for 802.11 use) at ranges up to 11Gbps Z-Wave: Z-Wave is a low-energy wireless mesh network protocol primarily used for home automation applications such as smart appliances, lighting control, security systems, smart thermostats, windows and locks, and garage doors.
Zigbee/802.14: Zigbee is a low-cost, low-power wireless mesh network protocol based on the IEEE 802.15.4 standard. Zigbee is the dominant protocol in the low-power networking market, with a large installed base in industrial environments and smart home products.
NEW QUESTION # 85
Which type of LAN technology is being displayed in the diagram?
- A. Star Topology
- B. Bus Topology
- C. Mesh Topology
- D. Spine Leaf Topology
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 86
In which situation would a dynamic routing protocol be the quickest way to configure routes on a router?
- A. the network is small
- B. the network has low bandwidth requirements
- C. the network needs backup routes
- D. the network is large
Answer: D
Explanation:
A static routing protocol requires that routes be created and updated manually on a router or other network device. If a static route is down, traffic can't be automatically rerouted unless an alternate route has been configured. Also, if the route is congested, traffic can't be automatically rerouted over the less congested alternate route. Static routing is practical only in very small networks or for very limited, special-case routing scenarios (for example, a destination that's used as a backup route or is reachable only via a single router). However, static routing has low bandwidth requirements (routing information isn't broadcast across the network) and some built-in security (users can route only to destinations that are specified in statically defined routes).
NEW QUESTION # 87
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